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THE PROPER MANAGEMENT OF ABN. PAP SMEARS
Approach Based on Pap
Smear
ASCUS = atypical squamous cells of undertermined significance.
AGCUS = atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance.
LSIL = low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (same as CIN I, or cervical
intraepithelial neoplasia, grade 1).
No endocervical cells present. Pap test is considered inadequate and should be
repeated.
ASCUS secondary to reactive/reparative changes or inflammatory changes. Look
for causative agent on wet mount or cultures and treat. If no agent identified,
treat with doxycycline 100 mg BID x 7 days. Repeat Pap test in 3 months. If
resolved, repeat Pap in 6 months and then yearly. If abnormal at 3 months, do
colposcopy.
ASCUS. Repeat Pap smear in 3 months and then every 6 months for 2 years
reverting to yearly after having 3 consecutive normals. Colposcopy indicated if
follow-up smear indicates ASCUS, or patient not able to comply with every 6
month follow-up exam.
LSIL or CIN I: Proceed to colposcopy.
ASCUS with dysplasia. Colposcopy indicated.
AGCUS. Colposcopy with endocervical curettage.
Other indications for colposcopy. Dysplasia (mild, moderate, severe), squamous
cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, human papillomavirus infection (cervical or
external genitalia), persistent inflammation.
Methods for Treating Cervical Dysplasia
Ectocervical.
Cryotherapy.
Laser therapy.
Topical 5-fluorouracil.
Local excision (biopsy forceps) if entire lesion well visualized.
Endocervical.
Surgical or laser conization.
Loop electrosurgical excision procedure.
unsatisfactory also
if:
no endocervical cells present (= no transformation zone present)
no squamous metaplastic cells present (= no endocervical cells)
The new Bethesda System (11/2001) made some changes in reporting (I am not sure
if USMLE already aware of this):
In the general categorization:
no more categorization as ASCUS/AGUS!!!
instead: negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy (this includes
previous regenerative, infectious or repair changes)
or: Epithelial Cell Abnormality
see interpretation/diagnosis
(and then the pathologist will give you a categorization in the Descriptive
Interpretation/Diagnoses as to squamous or glandular cell abnormality present
or endometrial cells present in a woman>40 yoa etc. see below)
other changes mentioned in descriptive:
NON-NEOPLASTIC:
ORGANISMS:
trichomonas vaginalis
fungal organisms morphologically consistent with Candida spp
shift in vaginal flora suggestive of bacterial vaginosis
bacteria morphologically consistent with Actinomyces spp
cellular changes associated with Herpes simplex virus
OTHER NON-NEOPLASTIC FINDINGS:
Reactive cellular changes associated with
inflammation (includes repair)
radiation
intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)
benign-appearing glandular cells status post hysterectomy
atrophy
OTHER:
endometrial cells in a woman>40 yoa
EPITHELIAL CELL ABNORMALITIES
SQUAMOUS CELL:
atypical squamous cells
- of undetermined significance (ASC-US)
- cannot exclude HSIL (ASC-H)
low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)
- encompassing: HPV/mild dysplasia/CIN 1
high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
- encompassing moderate and severe dysplasia, CIS/CIN 2 and 3
- with features suspicious for invasion (if invasion is suspected)
squamous cell carcinoma
GLANDULAR CELL:
atypical
- endocervical cells
- endometrial cells
- glandular cells
atypical glandular/endocervical cells, favor neoplastic
endocervical adenocarcinoma in situ
adenocarcinoma
- endocervical
- endometrial
- extaruterine
- not otherwise specified (NOS)
OTHER MALIGNANT NEOPLASMS: (specific diagnosis)
EDUCATIONAL NOTES AND RECOMMENDATIONS:
Stress testing in a COPD patient with Claudication
Understand the best
method of stress testing in patients with obstructive lung disease and
intermittent claudication.
Explanation:
The best stress test in general is exercise stress testing but patients with
intermittent claudication cannot exercise adequately. In such patients a
chemical stress test needs to be performed.
Dipyridamole stress is preferred over Dobutamine but in a case with obstructive
lung disease Dipyridamole may produce bronchospasm whereas Dobutamine would
not- therefore Dobutamine stress test would be the test of choice in a patient
like this.
**A 55-year-old male
with no significant past medical history presents to you because of pain and
swelling in his right calf following a vigorous game of basketball. He denies
any chest pain or shortness of breath. He smokes a pack of cigarettes per day
and drinks socially. Physical exam is normal except for edema and tenderness of
his right calf. Pulses are intact. A complete blood count, prothrombin time,
and PTT are normal. Ultrasonography shows a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) involving
the calf and popliteal veins on the right. An appropriate regimen of outpatient
treatment for DVT would include:
A -Low molecular weight heparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hrs plus warfarin
10 mg started immediately
B -Warfarin 15 mg started immediately
C -Low dose heparin (5000 units every 12 hrs subcutaneously) plus warfarin 15
mg stat
D -Low molecular weight heparin 60 mg subcutaneously every 12 hrs plus warfarin
5-10 mg started that evening
E -Aspirin 325 mg and warfarin 10 mg both administered immediately
Answer is D. Low molecular weight heparin (Enoxaparin) has been repeatedly shown to be safe and effective for treatment of patients with DVT. Enoxaparin 1mg/kg every 12 hrs and Dalteparin 200U/kg daily have been used in clinical trials. Subcutaneous Heparin in prophylactic doses would be insufficient to prevent a recurrent thrombosis in this patient. Aspirin has not been shown to be effective in DVT.
**A 56-year-old man
was seen 3 weeks after acute myocardial infarction. He is complaining of shortness
of breath and exertion intolerance. He was found to become tachycardic on
30-foot walk (110 min) and his blood pressure in rest was 98/56 mmHg. The
following ECG was obtained(shows st elevation in anterior leads). Which of the
following diagnostic methods is the most suitable to establish a diagnosis in
this patient?
A - Cardiac catheterization
B - Exercise stress test
C - Radionuclide ventriculography
D - Thallium stress test
E Echocardiography
Answer is E. ST
segment elevation does not resolve completely during the acute phase of MI.
This most commonly occurs with anterior infarcts. The features seen on this ECG
are associated with the development of a ventricular aneurysm. Marked aneurysm
dilatation may preclude effective systolic emptying of the left ventricle by
expanding with the increase in intraventricular pressure during the systole.
This leads to diminished stroke volume, cardiac output, pulmonary congestion,
exercise intolerance, etc.
Confirmation of the diagnosis is most effectively made by echocardiography.
Radionuclide ventriculography, Thallium imaging, and cardiac catheterization
also have the ability to demonstrate aneurysms, but these methods are slower
and more invasive; ventriculography and Thallium imaging may only be able to
detect large abnormalities.
**A 34-year-old female
was found to have a single 2 cm thyroid nodule. Which of the following is the
method of choice to differentiate between malignant or benign disease?
A - Tc99m thyroid scan
B - Ultrasound examination of the nodule and surrounding thyroid tissue
C - MRI scan of the thyroid gland
D - Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
E - Excision biopsy of the nodule
The correct answer is
D: Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
Educational objective: Review appropriate diagnostic procedures for thyroid
nodule evaluation.
Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of a thyroid nodule has proved to be the best
method for differentiation of benign from malignant thyroid disease. It is
performed as an outpatient procedure and requires no preparation. A No. 25 -
1.5-inch needle is inserted into the nodule and moved in and out until a small
amount of bloody material is seen in the hub of the needle. The needle is then
removed, and the content of the needle is expressed onto the clean slide. A thin
smear is prepared using another clean glass slide.
The slides are fixed and stained (Wrights, Geimsas or Papanicolaus stain).
The sensitivity of the technique is about 95%, and specificity also about 95%.
For best results this method requires adequate tissue sample and a trained
cytologist to interpret it.
FNA biopsy can't
identify well-diff
You have asked about the best test, not the initial one.
Please clarify.
Thyroid fine needle
aspiration (FNA) biopsy is the only non-surgical method which can differentiate
malignant and benign nodules in most, but not all, cases. The needle is placed
into the nodule several times and cells are aspirated into a syringe. The cells
are placed on a microscope slide, stained, and examined by a pathologist. The
nodule is then classified as nondiagnostic, benign, suspicious or malignant.
Nondiagnostic indicates that there are an insufficient number of thyroid cells
in the aspirate and no diagnosis is possible. A nondiagnostic aspirate should
be repeated, as a diagnostic aspirate will be obtained approximately 50 percent
of the time when the aspirate is repeated. Overall, five to 10 percent of
biopsies are nondiagnostic, and the patient should then undergo either an
ultrasound or a thyroid scan for further evaluation.
Benign thyroid aspirations are the most common (as we would suspect since most
nodules are benign) and consist of benign follicular epithelium with a variable
amount of thyroid hormone protein (colloid).
Malignant thyroid aspirations can diagnose the following thyroid cancer types:
papillary, follicular variant of papillary, medullary, anaplastic, thyroid
lymphoma, and metastases to the thyroid. Follicular carcinoma and Hurthle cell
carcinoma cannot be diagnosed by FNA biopsy. This is an important point. Since
benign follicular adenomas cannot be differentiated from follicular cancer
(~12% of all thyroid cancers) these patients often end up needing a formal
surgical biopsy, which usually entails removal of the thyroid lobe which
harbors the nodule.
Suspicious cytologies make up approximately 10 percent of FNA's. The thyroid
cells on these aspirates are neither clearly benign nor malignant. Twenty five
percent of suspicious lesions are found to be malignant when these patients
undergo thyroid surgery. These are usually follicular or Hurthle cell cancers.
Therefore, surgery is recommended for the treatment of thyroid nodules from
which a suspicious aspiration has been obtained.
FNA is the first, and in the vast majority of cases, the only test required for
the evaluation of a solitary thyroid nodule. (A TSH value should also be
obtained to evaluate thyroid function.) Thyroid ultrasound and thyroid scans
are usually not required for evaluation of a solitary thyroid nodule. FNA has
reduced the cost for evaluation and treatment of thyroid nodules, and has
improved yield of cancer found at thyroid surgery. Although a solitary thyroid
nodule can enlarge or shrink over time, the natural history of solitary nodules
reveals that most nodules change little with time.
**A 69-year-old female
suffered cardiac arrest in the emergency room. After prolonged cardiopulmonary
resuscitation, spontaneous heartbeat was achieved. However, she remained
unresponsive. Seven days later she is still unresponsive, and it has been
assessed that her condition is not reversible.
She had completed an advance directive about her health care several years ago.
In this document she appointed her husband to have durable power of attorney
for health care and specified that
she did not want her
life to be maintained by artificial means for longer than 1 week. She also
specified that she prefered to be allowed to die even if this meant cessation
of nutritional support, ventilation, and hydration. However, her husband now
requests that her care continue unchanged with full hydration, parenteral
nutrition and ventilatory support.
Which of the following is the appropriate action to be taken?
A - Wishes of the husband should be followed since he has durable power of
attorney for health care.
B - Ventilatory support, hydration, and nutritional support should be stopped
at this point according to patients wishes.
C - Because of conflict, only the hospital ethical committee can make the
decision.
D - Care for patient should be transferred to other physician who is willing to
comply with patients wishes.
E - Current level of care should be maintained until court decision is obtained
regarding further actions.
Answer is B. Patient in this question has executed durable power of attorney for health care. This power is delegated to her husband and his wishes should be followed as long as those wishes are not contrary to the wishes of the patient. Since this patient specified in her advance directive that she dose not want to be maintained beyond one week by means of ventilation, artificial nutrition and hydration, those measures should be stopped. Transferring patient to another physicians care does not change the situation in any way. Invoking the hospital's ethical committee may help the physician deal with the situation but should not change the outcome. There is no need for a court decision in this case since patient has explicitly stated her wishes in advance directive form.
**A 69-year-old man
who is seen for routine yearly check-up, and who has no medical complaints,
inquires about aspirin use. He was told by a friend who is a physician that
everybody should take one aspirin a day so he started taking one 325 mg aspirin
a day several weeks ago. He is not taking any other medications.
His physical examination is completely normal. His lipid panel is within normal
limits as well as his electrolyte panel and complete blood count. His blood
pressure is 127/67, temperature 36.8sC, weight 72 kg, and height 182 cm.
He asks what you recommend about aspirin use. Which of the following is the
answer that is in accordance with available data at this time?
A - He should continue to take aspirin as he started since this therapy indeed
leads to reduction in the incidence of cardiovascular incidents.
B - He should continue to take aspirin, but should take 81 mg a day since it
has been shown that this dose has a much lower incidence of side effects.
C - He should stop taking aspirin because of the resulting high incidence of
gastrointestinal bleeding in this age group.
D - He should continue to take aspirin until he is 80 years old, and than he
should stop because there is no further benefit after this age.
E - He may continue to take aspirin, but should stop if symptoms of
gastrointestinal distress occur or he notices blood in the stool (or melena).
However, there is no data to prove benefit of this therapy in asymptomatic
individuals.
Answer is E. Aspirin
is effective in preventing stroke in those patients who have transitory
ischemic attacks and also in prevention of nonfatal myocardial infarction and
cardiovascular mortality in those with prior myocardial infarction and unstable
angina. Some physicians believe that anybody should take daily aspirin as a
means of prevention of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, even those
without any evidence of disease.
There are two trials that examined this issue. The
The U.S. Preventive Service Task Force does not recommend for or against
aspirin use in primary prevention of myocardial infarction in asymptomatic men
or women. Those with multiple risk factors but no signs or symptoms of
cardiovascular disease should be counseled about benefits and risks of daily
aspirin therapy (cerebral and gastrointestinal hemorrhage, gastrointestinal
distress). Patients with existing coronary artery disease or transient ischemic
attack or previous stroke are candidates for therapy if there are no
contraindications.
**Eleven days after a
massive stroke, patient does not have spontaneous respirations or response to
any stimuli. Neurologic evaluation indicates that he is unlikely to regain
consciousness. He has appointed his common law spouse to make the decisions
about his health care by means of a living will in which he indicated that he
does not want his life to be maintained using futile medical care. This was
executed one and a half years ago while they lived in another state.
Patients spouse has requested that his hydration and nutritional support be
withdrawn. The doctor treating the patient has strong moral convictions against
terminating any kind of life support.
In this situation which of the following scenarios would be appropriate for the
physician to follow?
A - He should continue to treat the patient according to his convictions since
he is not obligated to practice medicine contrary to his moral beliefs.
B - He should comply with the requests of the patients spouse.
C - He can safely continue to treat patients as he wishes because the living
will of the patient was executed in another state and it was done so more than
1 year ago, both of which make it invalid in the present situation.
D - He should transfer the care of the patient to another physician who is
willing to comply with the wishes of the patients wife and his own expressed
in the living will.
E - He cannot make this decision on his own and needs to consult the hospital
ethics committee.
Answer is D.
Educational objective: Emphasize the rights of physicians when confronted with
morally unacceptable situations.
According to the Patient Self-determination Act, physicians are obligated to
comply with REASONABLE requests of competent patients or their appointed agents
(most commonly by the durable power of attorney for health care or by the
living will). There is no time limit to the validity of such appointment, and
advance directive executed in one state is valid in all others.
If, despite all other conditions being met, the physician still has moral
disagreement with the decisions being made he is obligated to transfer the care
of the patient to a physician who is ready to comply with those decisions.
A hospital ethics committee may be useful in providing a physician with
counseling but it is not necessary in this situation.
**A 76-year-old man is
hospitalized with stroke in the area of the right middle cerebral artery. He
had a paroxysm of cough immediately after attempt to eat.
On physical examination he is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. He
has severe dysarthria but no signs of aphasia. He has facial asymmetry due to
left-sided facial droop, but his gag reflex is intact.
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to provide nutrition to this
patient?
A - Placement of a percutaneous gastrostomy tube
B - Intravenous alimentation
C - Feeding through a nasogastric tube
D - Oral feeding supervised by a nurse and suctioning as needed
E - Clear liquid diet with advanced diet as soon as possible depending on
patients clinical status
Answer is B. After a
stroke about 25-45% of all patients develop dysphagia. The main problem that
stems from dysphagia is aspiration pneumonia, which, if it develops, greatly
complicates the clinical course and contributes to mortality. The patient in
question had an attack of cough after an attempt to eat. This is a common sign
of dysphagia. Physical examination of this patient revealed several findings
that suggest dysphagia (facial nerve paresis and dysarthria). It is a common
misconception that presence or absence of a gag reflex correlates with the risk
of aspiration. This is not true. More important in the assessment of the
aspiration risk are speech articulation, ability to swallow, and tongue
movement. This patient has enough signs and symptoms to justify formal
swallowing evaluation prior to beginning oral intake.
Many patients with dysphagia aspirate silently, without coughing or choking.
Nurses supervision during the feeding may not ensure that successful suction
will be possible if patient aspirates while eating.
Dysphagia after stroke commonly improves. Hence, a permanent form of enteral
feeding, such as a gastrostomy tube, is not necessary.
Modification of the diet structure (giving clear liquid diet, etc.) may be a
part of the dysphagia management in some circumstances, but liquids have the
greatest potential for aspiration.
A nasogastric tube also may be used in certain circumstances, but it carries
the risk of paranasal sinus infection as well as aspiration of regurgitated
gastric content or leaked gastric content from a malpositioned tube.
**A 91-year-old male
suffered a massive hemorrhagic stroke. He has been treated in the intensive
care unit. He required intubation and ventilation. His heart rate has been
irregular; blood pressure dropped during the first 12 hours of treatment to
less than 80 systolic. Blood pressure has been maintained for the last 6 hours
with a maximal dose of the dopamine.
His two sons arrived in the hospital from the other part of the country. Both
are very distressed. They have not seen their father for more than 4 years and
plans were being made to have a family reunion in a couple of months. Patients
wife of the last 2 years is also in the hospital. She holds a durable power of
attorney for health care for the patient and states that his wish would be to
stop these aggressive measures of life support.
Patients sons strongly disagree and wish to continue life support as long as
possible. Which of the following is appropriate action to be undertaken?
**A - Since there is disagreement about future care and patient cannot express
his wishes, it is necessary to organize an extended family conference and try
to reach consensus on future care.
B - The wishes of the sons should be followed because they may sue the hospital
if care is stopped.
C - The wishes of the sons should be followed because stopping the care equals
euthanasia.
D - The wifes instructions should be followed since she holds a power of
attorney for the health care of this patient.
E - Life support should be continued until brain death can be established, at
which point care should be stopped because this avoids any legal issues in the
case
Answer is D. A durable
power of attorney for health care which takes written form is authorized by
statute in practically every state. It enables a decisional person to appoint
someone else (the agent) to make future medical treatment choices for him or
her in the event of decisional incapacity. The agent may or may not be a family
member. A durable power of attorney, unlike a living will, supplies an actual
person who is available when decisions must be made and who is authorized to
advocate for and interpret the expressed and inferred whishes of the patient.
The availability of such an agent is advantageous both to the patient who needs
advocacy and the physician who is trying to act according to the wishes of the
incapacitated patient.
In this case the patients wife acts as the patients agent, and her
instructions take precedence over all other wishes of the family members.
**A patient with
cytomegalovirus retinitis has been treated with intravenous ganciclovir for the
last 4 months. On the most recent laboratory findings a sudden drop in the
thrombocyte count was noted (20,000 mm3). Which of the following is the most
appropriate action in this situation?
A - Discontinuation of the therapy
B - Exchange of ganciclovir with intravenous foscarnet
C - Exchange of ganciclovir with acyclovir
D - Exchange of ganciclovir with valcyclovir
E - Continuation of ganciclovir therapy
Answer is B. The major
drugs that are used for treatment of cytomegalovirus retinitis are intravenous
ganciclovir and foscarnet, oral ganciclovir, intraocular ganciclovir, and
intravenous cidofovir. Ganciclovir and foscarnet have equivalent efficacy
against the retinitis. Major side effects of the ganciclovir are neutropenia
and thrombocytopenia (limiting use in up to 16% of patients). Ganciclovir should
not be given with absolute neutropenia of less than 500 mm3 and
thrombocytopenia 25, 000 mm3.
Foscarnet increases serum creatinine concentration (due to acute tubular
necrosis) and may produce symptoms of hypocalcemia during drug infusion because
of chelation of serum ionized calcium (and magnesium). These side effects have
been dose-limiting in up to 20% of patients.
**A 53-year-old male
smoker presented with a 2-week history of expectorating sputum streaked with a
blood. He denies any fever or chills or increases in the intensity of his
cough. Physical examination and chest X-ray are unremarkable. Which of the
following is an appropriate next step in the diagnostic work-up of this
patient?
A - Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
B - MRI of the chest
C - High resolution CT of the chest
D - A and B
E - A and C
Answer is E. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy and high resolution CT (HRCT) are, in many ways, complementary to each other. Both of those procedures have advantages in certain clinical situations. In one study HRCT demonstrated all tumors seen on bronchoscopy as well as several which were beyond bronchoscopic range. On the other hand, HRCT could not detect bronchitis or subtle mucosal abnormalities that could be seen on bronchoscopy. In one study HRCT was particularly useful in diagnosing bronchiectasis and aspergillomas, while bronchoscopy was diagnostic of bronchitis and mucosal lesions such as Kaposis sarcoma. The patient in question is at high risk for pulmonary carcinoma; as of today, the procedures are considered complementary in this setting.
**A 42-year-old female
presented with pain in the left leg. Pain was mild, dull but constant. On
examination there was a difference in the circumference of the calves, with the
left leg being 2.5 cm (1.0 inch) bigger. There was also a 1.5 cm increased
circumference in the left thigh area. Palpation of the left calf revealed
tenderness on palpation in popliteal fossa and half way down the posterior
aspect of the calf. This was the first such episode in her life. Her past
medical history was significant only for multiple (3) spontaneous abortions.
Impedance pletismography confirmed deep venous thrombosis. Which of the
following findings is most likely in the laboratory results of this patient?
A - Polycytemia
B - Thrombocytopenia
C - Low white blood cell count
D - Hyponatremia
E Hyperkalemia
Answer is B. This
patient presents with confirmed deep venous thrombosis and remarkable history
of the spontaneous abortions. This constellation of symptoms and signs is
highly suggestive of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (antibodies directed
against either phospholipids or plasma proteins bound to anionic phospholipids.
Most common symptoms are venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal
losses, and thrombocytopenia. Other possible findings include livedo
reticularis, migraine headaches, Raynauds disease, hemolytic anemia,
neurologic dysfunction, renal disease, pulmonary hypertension, avascular
necrosis, and adrenal insufficiency.
In rare cases, primary antiphospholipid syndrome may result in multiorgan
failure because of multiple vessel occlusions.
**A 55-year-old man
comes to your office for evaluation of abnormal hemoglobin of 17.8 g/dl and
dyspnea. Three years ago he underwent uvuloplasty because of snoring and had
complete relief of his symptoms. He quit smoking 5 years ago and is a social
drinker.
On physical exam he is 175 centimeters tall, weighs 70 kg and his blood
pressure is 124/86 mm/Hg. Examination of the abdomen reveals an enlarged
spleen.
Laboratory studies are as follows:
Hb - 17.8 g/dl, MCV 85 fL
WBC 13, 000 microliter
Platelet count 500, 000
O2 saturation - 96%
PH - 7.42, PCO2 - 40, PO2 - 88
Venous blood P50 - 27 mm/Hg
Erythropoietin - 2 mU/ml
RBC mass - Increased
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Sleep apnea
B - Renal cell carcinoma
C - COPD
D - Hemoglobinopathy
E - Polycythemia rubra vera
E
Criteria for
diagnosing polycythemia rubra vera include:
Category A - increased red blood cell (RBC) mass,
splenomegaly and normal oxygen saturation.
Category B - platelet count more than
400,000/microliter, white blood cell count (WBC)
more than 12,000 /microliter, leukocyte alkaline
phosphatase score more than 100. Serum level of
vitamin B12 more than 900 ng/L.
The presence of all three criteria in category A establishes the diagnosis. If
the patient has increased RBC mass with either of the other two category A
criteria, then 2 of the 4 category B criteria are necessary to establish the
diagnosis.
Erythropoietin levels are elevated in patients with secondary polycytemia seen
in the other conditions listed
*******Will somebody
answer the CCS presented below..Thanks*******
1. Myocardial infarction
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Renal cell mass, most likely Renal cell carcinoma
4. Acute pulmonary edema
5. Diabetes mellitus type 2
6. Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia secondary to cephalohematoma reabsorption
7. Opioid overdose
8. Major depression
9. Ovarian torsion
***A 16-year-old
female presents to a family physician to obtain a referral for family therapy.
She is estranged from her mother and stepfather, who see the same physician.
For many years, this patient responsibly cared for her four younger siblings
while their single mother worked. Since her mother's marriage, the family has
become involved in a fundamentalist church. The patient moved out when she felt
the social and moral restrictions of the family's religion were too burdensome
for her. The patient seemed quite mature; she maintained a 3.5 GPA, along with
a part-time job. She demonstrated a genuine desire for reconciliation, and the
therapy referral was provided.
She also requested and obtained a prescription for contraceptives during the
visit, with the assurance that her sexual activity would be kept confidential.
In follow-up, she reported that the therapist had informed her that if she
mentioned anything about being sexually active with her adult partner, he would
be obliged to report her to the state. The patient was very concerned about the
conflict between this statement and the family physician's prior assurance of
confidentiality.
Should this patient's confidentiality be broken?
No
While the physician
has a moral obligation to obey the law, he must balance this against his
responsibility to the patient. In researching the Criminal Code of Washington,
the physician learned that sexual intercourse with a minor, at least 16, but
under 18, is a class C felony, and a reportable offense, if the offender is at
least 90 months older than the victim. This patient's relationship did not actually
meet the criteria for mandatory reporting. Had this not been the case however,
the physician could be justified in weighing the balance of harms arising from
the filing of such a report.
There is little justification for informing the family of the young woman's
sexual activity. Due to the family's strong fundamentalist beliefs, significant
damage would have occurred in the family reconciliation process with this
discovery. Although they would clearly disapprove of the patient's actions, her
choices carry no risk of harm to them.
Criteria for diagnosing polycythemia rubra vera include
**Your patient with
cryptococcal meningitis eventually agrees to be tested for HIV and her test
comes back positive. Due to her opportunistic infection she receives the
diagnosis of AIDS.
Should she be reported to the department of public health?
Yes
AIDS is a currently a reportable diagnosis in all 50 states of the union. Her diagnosis should be reported to the department of public health. Notably, HIV positivity without the diagnosis of AIDS is not reportable in all states. Currently, 30 of 50 states requires reporting of a positive test. It is important to find out the local states laws where you are practicing to know how to approach this problem.
**A 22-year-old woman
is admitted to the hospital with a headache, stiff neck and photophobia but an
intact mental status. Lab test reveal cryptococcal meningitis, an infection
commonly associated with HIV infection. When given the diagnosis, she adamantly
refuses to be tested for HIV.
Should she be tested anyway by the medical staff?
No
Testing for HIV, as for any other medical procedure should be done only with the informed consent of the patient. Testing without consent is unethical in this setting. The physician's role in the care of this patient is ongoing support, education and guidance about her various options for care.
**A 55-year-old man
has a 3-month history of chest pain and fainting spells. You feel his symptoms
merit cardiac catheterization. You explain the risks and potential benefits to
him, and include your assessment of his likely prognosis without the
intervention. He is able to demonstrate that he understands all of this, but
refuses the intervention.
Can he do that, legally? Should you leave it at that?
Yes
This patient understands what is at stake with his treatment refusal. As he is competent to make this decision, you have a duty to respect his choice. However, you should also be sure to explore his reasons for refusing treatment and continue to discuss your recommendations. A treatment refusal should be honored, but it should also not be treated as the end of a discussion.
**A 64-year-old woman
with MS is hospitalized. The team feels she may need to be placed on a feeding
tube soon to assure adequate nourishment. They ask the patient about this in
the morning and she agrees. However, in the evening (before the tube has been
placed), the patient becomes disoriented and seems confused about her decision
to have the feeding tube placed. She tells the team she doesn't want it in.
They revisit the question in the morning, when the patient is again lucid.
Unable to recall her state of mind from the previous evening, the patient again
agrees to the procedure.
Is this patient competent to decide? Which preference should be honored?
This patient's underlying disease is impairing her decision making capacity. If her wishes are consistent during her lucid periods, this choice may be considered her real preference and followed accordingly. However, as her decision making capacity is questionable, getting a surrogate decision maker involved can help determine what her real wishes are This patient's underlying disease is impairing her decision making capacity. If her wishes are consistent during her lucid periods, this choice may be considered her real preference and followed accordingly. However, as her decision making capacity is questionable, getting a surrogate decision maker involved can help determine what her real wishes are
**A 3-year-old child
is brought to your clinic with a fever and stiff neck. You are quite certain
the child has meningitis. When you discuss the need for a spinal tap and
antibiotic treatment, the parents refuse permission, saying, ' We'd prefer
to take him home and have our minister pray over him.'
Can the parents refuse treatment in this case? How should you handle this?
The physician has a duty to provide treatment to a child when denying that treatment would pose a significant risk of substantial harm. Failure to diagnose and treat bacterial meningitis would seriously threaten the health and even life of this child. The physician should share his view with the family and seek to elicit their cooperation through respectful discussion. Inviting their religious leader to the hospital while also providing standard medical therapy may prove to be an acceptable compromise. Should these efforts not result in parental permission, the physician is justified in seeking legal help so as to proceed with the procedure and treatment of the child. In most states a physician is legally authorized to provide emergency treatment to a child without a court order when delay would likely result in harm.
**A mother brings her
18-month-old daughter to your office for a routine physical examination. The
child has had no immunizations. Her mother says that they believe in
naturopathic medicine and prefer not to immunize their children.
What is your role in this situation? Can parents refuse to immunize their
children?
Yes
The risk faced by unimmunized individuals is relatively low, and the mother's refusal to immunize does not pose a significant likelihood of harm to her child. The physician should be sure that the child's mother understands the risks of remaining unimmunized and attempt to correct any misconceptions about the degree of risk associated with getting immunized. If the mother persists in her request, the physician should respect her wishes.
Can parents refuse to
provide their children with necessary medical treatment on the basis of their
beliefs?
Parents have legal and moral authority to make health care decisions for their
children, as long as those decisions do not pose a serious threat to the
child's physical well-being. Parents should not be permitted to deny their
children medical care when that medical care is likely to prevent substantial
harm or suffering. If necessary, the physician may need to pursue a court order
in order to provide treatment against the wishes of the parents. Nevertheless,
the physician must always take care to show respect for the family's beliefs
and a willingness to discuss reasonable alternatives with the family.
What kinds of treatment can parents choose not to provide to their children?
Parents have the right to refuse medical treatments when doing so does not place
the child at significant risk of substantial harm or suffering. For example,
parents have the right to refuse immunizations for their children on religious
or cultural grounds.
Ref. ETHICS IN
**A 13-year-old white
male complains of a 2-month history of pain in the anterior aspect of the right
knee and mild intermittent swelling of the knee. Although he plays soccer and
runs track, he cannot recall any singular traumatic event. He has noticed that the
pain is worse after running or going up or down stairs. He has not noticed any
locking, clicking, or giving way. Physical examination shows mild thickening of
the patellar tendon and tenderness at the insertion of the patellar tendon.
There is no effusion or instability.
Which one of the following is true regarding this patient's condition?
a. Radiographic findings of a fragmented epiphysis are characteristic
b. A CBC and sedimentation rate should be obtained to rule out inflammatory
disorders
c. The problem is usually self-limited and generally responds to a brief period
of activity restriction
d. The problem is caused by avascular necrosis of the tibial tubercle
e. A bone scan is indicated at this point to confirm the diagnosis and rule out inflammatory and neoplastic conditions
C
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a generally self-limited condition characterized by tenderness and swelling of the patellar tendon and by excessive enlargement of the proximal tibial tubercle. It is a disease of pre-adolescence, commonly seen between the ages of 11 and 15 in boys and 8 and 13 in girls. It is more common in boys. There is usually a history of participation in sports and a recent growth spurt, and the problem is unilateral in three-fourths of patients. It is caused by a contracted quadriceps mechanism producing traumatic stress on the proximal tibial tuberosity during the growth period, when the tibial tubercle is susceptible to strain. There is no avascular necrosis. The pain is usually worse after activities that stress the patellofemoral unit, such as running or climbing stairs. It is a clinical diagnosis, and requires no confirmatory testing in the usual mild to moderate cases. Roentgenographic findings are variable and are not required to make the diagnosis. It usually responds to activity restrictions, although severe cases may require a temporary period of cast immobilization.
**A 2-year-old
Hispanic female visiting from
Your management would include which one of the following?
a. Administration of immune serum globulin intramuscularly
b. Having the dog treated by a veterinarian to avoid spread of this infection
to other persons in the home
c. Oral erythromycin therapy for 2 weeks
d. Reassurance that the cough will abate over the next week
e. Hospitalization for ribavirin (Virazole) aerosol therapy
C
This child's presentation is highly suspicious for pertussis, given the severe coughing paroxysms and possibility of inadequate immunization. Two weeks of oral erythromycin is recommended for mildly to moderately ill children, principally to halt the spread of the illness. Ribavirin is used for respiratory syncytial virus infection, generally seen in much younger children and with more respiratory distress. The cough of pertussis often lasts several weeks. Although 'kennel cough' is produced by a canine Bordetella species, B. pertussis is seen only in humans. Immune globulin is not recommended
HIV patient does not
want to tell wife - Can you?
Yes. There is a risk to somebody,s life in this case. The human benefit of
breaching confidentiality in this case is much more than not breaching it. Even
if the patient says that he will tell his wife, you must confirm that this is
done. If he does not do it, you must ensure that she is informed (even if this
involves the health department/police contacting her if you cannot manage so
yourself).
This comes from the fact that confidentiality need not be maintained if there
is danger to somebody's life.
The following information is posted from the NY state regulations of reporting
to partners:
'Notifying Partners:
If you test HIV positive, your provider will talk with you about the importance
and benefits of notifying your partners of their possible exposure to HIV. It
is important that your partners know they may have been exposed to HIV so they
can find out whether they are infected and benefit from early diagnosis and
treatment. Your provider may ask you to provide the names of your partners, and
whether it is safe for you if they are notified. If you have been in an abusive
relationship with one of these partners, it is important to share information
with your provider.
For information regarding services related to domestic violence, call
1-800-942-6906.
Under state law, your provider is required to report to the health department
the names of any of your partners (present and past sexual partners, including
spouses, and needle sharing partners) whom they know.
If you have additional partners whom
your provider does not know, you may give their names to your provider so they
can be notified.
Several options are available to assist
you and your provider in notifying partners. If you or your provider do not
have a plan to notify your partners, the health department may notify them
without revealing your identity. If this notification presents a risk of harm
to you, the Health Department may defer the notification for a period of time
sufficient to allow you to access domestic violence prevention services.
If you do not name any partners to your provider or if a need exists to confirm
information about your partners, the health department may contact you to
request your cooperation in this process.
Because the patient's wife is at serious risk for being infected with HIV, you have a duty to ensure thatshe knows of the risk. While public health law requires reporting both your patient and any known sexual partners to local health officers, it is generally advisable to encourage the patient to share this information with his wife on his own, giving him a bit more time if necessary.
In earlier days, when
doctors would see a patient in whom the prognosis was poor, they may have
ordered 'slow code'. It used to mean that give a half hearted attempt
of resuscitation to document it on the chart.
I have heard of it during training from some old-timers but never should this
be an option. Nowadays if the attending decides that the intervention (CPR)
will be futile, the attending has the right to decide that NO code should be
performed. Even though , technically it is the right answer for the exam,
rarely does one see that as a unilateral decision as the attending discusses
and convinces the family before doing this.
Minor wanting
contraception (this is excerpted from the article on adolescent
confidentiality):
If an adolescent asks you for contraceptives - you should not only give
/prescribe them but you as a good physician must take extra time to explain
their use and side effects as some adolescents have no idea about these
devices/pills and their limitations. It is wrong to call the parent in to tell
them about these issues or tell the police about something the adolescent
vested in you or to deny this young individual care that an adult would get
routinely from you.
Only abuse, suicide or homicide cannot be granted confidentiality.
As to which method to use for contraception, one must stress the importance of
barrier methods (condoms) in prevention of STDs which is not provided by Oral
contraceptive pills. Safer still would be to use BOTH together.
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